From: Bernhard H. <ber...@be...> - 2004-06-20 09:26:53
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> > > Shouldnt ~P1_0 behave same in both contexts? > > > > No. > > I disagree. ISO/IEC 9899 states that the "result of the ~ operator is the > bitwise complement of its (promoted) operand". So P1_0 should be promoted > before applying the complement operator regardless of how the expression > is used (or at least resolve to the same result as if it were promoted). My focus was on the difference between ~ and !, and they are not the same; sorry, I wasn't specific enough and you're of course right. ~ should behave the same in func1() and func2() from the bug report. Bernhard |