From: Hellmut T. <hel...@ro...> - 2008-11-01 19:04:15
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Hello everybody, I need to bridge two different LANs with OpenVPN. According to all I read, both LAN segments need to share the same subnet. All documentation refers to examples within a /24 network. As of now my own LAN is 10.10.1.0/24, the opposite side is 10.10.10.0/24. To prevent the confusion that is preprogrammed by changing all IP numbers in one LAN, would it make sense to change the netmask on all clients and both gateways' bridges to /16 ? This would put both segmants into the same subnet, right? This may be an immense waste of number space, but I doubt that I will run into IP number scarcity in this private setup :), Any drawbacks in using such a huge netmask, maybe I miss something obvious here? Thanks in advance, Hellmut |