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From: Colin S. <col...@ex...> - 2004-07-31 12:58:02
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Rob Harrop wrote: > Reading through the 1.1 docs it says that a parent bean can never > be accessed directly in an app either through <ref> or getBean() yet I > was able to do both. Is this an error in the doc or the code? > > Rob This is prefaced with the text 'In the case that the parent definition does not specify a class' before the sample... If it has a class, it's usable as its own bean, and in fact you need to make it lazy-init=true or singleton=true to stop the factory from pre-instantiating it. I need to update the docs to specifically mention that. Colin |