From: Dr E. L. <el...@li...> - 2007-02-13 18:36:53
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They (pre-)pay into our bank account, and I make a GL entry debiting the bank account, crediting the Pre-Payment account. Then I do a Cash->Receipt for the client and apply the payment selecting not the bank account but the Pre-Payment account from the Payment pull-down menu. That's it. The actual money has always been in the bank account, but until you "pay" an invoice from Pre-Pay that money doesn't really belong to you yet, ergo it is not Revenue but Liability. And since we have about 15 Pre-Payers it's not really a major issue. I have one for payments that I don't know which invoices they are for, usually when I suspend services for delinquency this sorts itself out :-)-O. greetings, el on 2/13/07 8:21 AM Michael Hasse said the following: > Good point on the taxes! > So to confirm I'm understanding, you've got a separate Liability > account for each prepaying client? And then as the funds are applied > to invoices those amounts get moved over to the actual bank accounts > on asset side of the balance sheet? Are there two payment line items > entered on each invoice then, one each for liability and asset? > > > Thanks! > > Michael |