From: Dr E. L. <el...@li...> - 2007-01-25 15:44:39
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Ed, on 1/25/07 1:10 PM Ed W said the following: > Dr Eberhard Lisse wrote: >> The solution is to take the rate you get for buying the USD and to stick >> the slip to the invoice which you file. >> >> I have this occasionally when I pay by credit card. I take the amount >> that the credit card debits from my account andit is only one simple entry. >> > > You said exactly this already - either I don't understand what you are > saying or you missed my reply? > > The basics here are that: > > a) The invoice has to get entered today in foreign currency No, it does *NOT*. Neither today, nor in a foreign currency, nor via AP. > b) I might not pay the bill for 1-6 months time, hence I won't have an > actual rate for it until after a year end of tax quarter. Therefore I > need to account for it on an accrual basis No, you don't. > I already entered my first invoice in using the foreign currency, but I > am unsure how to pay it... There is a rate option in the payment page > when paying a foreign currency invoice, but again it pulls out the > generic rate for today (entered using a CRON job) and so again we will > have a small FX deviation - I'm just not quite sure how to enter this > > Additionally I am not sure what is going to happen to the cost of goods > once I enter the payment - will these be affected or is the rate used > only to enter an FX accrual for me automatically? Since it does not involve local taxes you can do it with a GL entry when you (eventually) pay. el |