Re: [Openvpn-users] Can a network behind a CGNAT:ed ISP be accessed using OpenVPN?

[Antonio Q. <a...@un...>]

Hi,

On 16/09/2024 08:46, Bo Berglund wrote:
> We would like to set up an OpenVPN service on a summer home to access its local
> LAN remotely.
> 
> The site has newly installed fiber access to the Internet, but via an ISP which
> has CGNAT:ed the router so there is no access to its IP address from outside.
> Therefore I cannot set up a regular OpenVPN server on that LAN to dial into. :(
> 
> I have access to other fiber connected sites where the external IP is a public
> address and where I have set up OpenVPN for access and it works fine.
> 
> So I would like to know if it is possible to set up a connection to the CGNAT:ed
> LAN by using an OpenVPN client on that LAN connecting to OpenVPN on the publicly
> accessible server, and then somehow relaying traffic into the CGNATED LAN via
> the connection set up from within that LAN to the publicly accessible server?
> 
> Like having a relaying service utilizing the VPN client connection set up from
> the client on the CGNAT-ed LAN allowing a user to connect to the accessible
> OpenVPN server and then from there into the tunnel towards the CGNATed LAN?
> 
> If so is there some documentation as to how one could set it up (and what would
> such a scheme be named for further web searches)?

Yes, this is possible and it's a scenario commonly known as "Client LAN" 
(connecting a LAN behind a client).

We have a flow chart that help you understanding if you went through all 
the steps required to get it working:

https://community.openvpn.net/openvpn/attachment/wiki/IRCimages/clientlan.png

In a nutshell, you need to configure both a route and a "iroute" to 
inform the VPN server (your relay point) where a certain LAN is.

Hope this helps.

Regards,

-- 
Antonio Quartulli