From: JuanPi <aj...@gm...> - 2010-09-21 10:47:04
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Hi Peter, Thank you very much. I think this should be somewhere in the manual and the documentation. The scaling factor of the F. transform and its inverse differs a lot from discipline to discipline, so it is better to always state it explicitly. JPi On Tue, Sep 21, 2010 at 12:39 PM, Peter L. Soendergaard <pe...@so...> wrote: > tir, 21 09 2010 kl. 10:31 +0200, skrev JuanPi: >> Hi everybody, >> >> According to FFTW >> http://www.fftw.org/faq/section3.html#whyscaled >> >> the fft is not normalized...hence ifft(fft(y)) = length(y)*y > To clear things up: > > The fft is not normalized, but the ifft is normalized in such a way that > ifft(fft(y)) == y > > In FFTW, ifft is not normalized this way, so ifft in FFTW and > Octave/Matlab differs, but the fft's are the same. > > Normally, if one talks about a normalized fft, the normalization is > fft(y)/sqrt(length(y)). This gives fft and ifft the same normalization > > /Peter > > -- JuanPi Carbajal ----- "I have come to believe that the whole world is an enigma, a harmless enigma that is made terrible by our own mad attempt to interpret it as though it had an underlying truth." -- Umberto Eco ----- www.ailab.ch/carbajal |