From: Blaine S. <bla...@ad...> - 2009-11-27 04:29:49
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I've reviewed the available authorizations/privileges for 1.9. It looks like there are no auths/privs at all for DDL operations. Would it be correct to say that in order to run an ALTER TABLE command, the account must either have DBA role or own (be authorization for) the table's schema? Also, and more generally: A schema's authorization can be considered its "owner". Would this ownership metaphor extend with similarly accurate inferences to the individual objects of the owned schema? For example if user U ownes schema S with tables S.T1 and S.T2, would it be useful (or alternatively misleading) to consider U as the owner of S.T1 and S.T2? |